DOI Page / Citation link:
https://doi.org/10.11588/diglit.9552#0549
TO THE CHRISTIAN PUBLIC.
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of the world, by the use of the word own in the verse,
[against the declaration of Paul? Rom. iii. 29: " Is he
the God of the Jews only ? Is he not also of the
Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also." Or does he use
this word to shew the Israelites' especial attachment
to God ? In 1 Tim i. 2, Paul uses the expression,
" Timothy, my own son in the faith." Did he thereby
exclude his thousands of spiritual disciples from being
his sons in the faith ?
In reply to his allusion to John i. 16, in which Jesus
is said to be "the only-begotten Son of the Father," I
beg to refer the Editor to Heb. xi. 17 : Ci By faith Abra-
ham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac ; and he that
had received the promises offered up his only-begotten
son." Whence he may perceive that the phrase " only-
begotten," implies only most beloved among the children,
as Abraham had, at that time, another son beside Isaac,
namely, Ishmael, by Hagar, given to him as his wife,
Gen. xvi. 3, 15. Were we to take the word of John,
" only-begotten," in its literal sense, in defiance of Heb.
xi. 17, we must discredit the express word of God,
declaring Israel his begotten and first-born son, and
describing David to be his begotten son.
It is worth noticing, that the author of the Epistle to
the Hebrews applies the last phrase, "begotten son," in
an accommodated sense, to Jesus, Heb. i. 5 ; I say in
an accommodated sense, since in Psalm ii. 7, it is David
that declares, during the prosperous time of his reign,
"The Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my son, this day
have I begotten thee. Besides, how can the orthodox
Christians, who consider Jesus . as the begotten Son of
God from eterni^v, with consistencv maintain the opinion,
25
of the world, by the use of the word own in the verse,
[against the declaration of Paul? Rom. iii. 29: " Is he
the God of the Jews only ? Is he not also of the
Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also." Or does he use
this word to shew the Israelites' especial attachment
to God ? In 1 Tim i. 2, Paul uses the expression,
" Timothy, my own son in the faith." Did he thereby
exclude his thousands of spiritual disciples from being
his sons in the faith ?
In reply to his allusion to John i. 16, in which Jesus
is said to be "the only-begotten Son of the Father," I
beg to refer the Editor to Heb. xi. 17 : Ci By faith Abra-
ham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac ; and he that
had received the promises offered up his only-begotten
son." Whence he may perceive that the phrase " only-
begotten," implies only most beloved among the children,
as Abraham had, at that time, another son beside Isaac,
namely, Ishmael, by Hagar, given to him as his wife,
Gen. xvi. 3, 15. Were we to take the word of John,
" only-begotten," in its literal sense, in defiance of Heb.
xi. 17, we must discredit the express word of God,
declaring Israel his begotten and first-born son, and
describing David to be his begotten son.
It is worth noticing, that the author of the Epistle to
the Hebrews applies the last phrase, "begotten son," in
an accommodated sense, to Jesus, Heb. i. 5 ; I say in
an accommodated sense, since in Psalm ii. 7, it is David
that declares, during the prosperous time of his reign,
"The Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my son, this day
have I begotten thee. Besides, how can the orthodox
Christians, who consider Jesus . as the begotten Son of
God from eterni^v, with consistencv maintain the opinion,